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Michael G. Branson Michael G. Branson, CEO of All Reverse Mortgage, Inc., and moderator of ARLO™, has 45 years of experience in mortgage banking, with the past 20 years devoted exclusively to reverse mortgages. A Forbes Real Estate Council member, he developed the industry's first fixed-rate jumbo reverse mortgage and has been featured in Forbes, Kiplinger, the LA Times, and Yahoo Finance. (License: NMLS# 14040)
Cliff Auerswald Cliff Auerswald, President of All Reverse Mortgage, Inc., and co-creator of ARLO™ — the industry's first real-time reverse mortgage pricing engine — has 27 years of experience in mortgage banking, with 20+ years focused exclusively on reverse mortgages. A recognized expert in reverse mortgage technology and consumer education, he has been featured in Kiplinger, Yahoo Finance, Realtor.com, and HousingWire. (License: NMLS# 14041)

Reverse Mortgage Attorney Asks: Rules of Spouse & Survivorship

Michael G. Branson, CEO of All Reverse Mortgage
CEO · 45 yrs in mortgage banking
Cliff Auerswald, President of All Reverse Mortgage
President · All Reverse Mortgage Inc.
9 min read Fact Checked HUD-Lender #26031-0007 28 comments

Hello ARLO,

Husband & Wife, both over 70-years-old, occupied principal residence in California for many, many years and have no other home. Husband had a fall in late 2016 and was discharged from the hospital to a board & care facility to recover. Husband had been at board & care facility for 4 months when husband & wife applied for a reverse mortgage in early 2017 seeking to both be borrowers on the loan. The home was Husband’s permanent place of abode, and he had no other permanent residence.

At the time of applying for the reverse mortgage, title to the residence was held as “husband & wife, as community property with right of survivorship,” a customary form of joint title in California. The reverse mortgage loan closed in mid-2017 with wife as the only borrower. Husband has now died, and title cannot be changed back community property with right of survivorship (i.e., I am not looking for probate advice).

Part I — Reverse mortgage company would not allow husband to be a borrower because he “did not live at home” at the time of applying for the reverse mortgage. Is this correct? Is husband really disqualified from being a borrower at loan origination because he had been recovering temporarily in a board & care for 4 months?

Part II — Reverse mortgage company then referred to husband as a “non-borrowing spouse,” and required that the couple change the title to their residence to be “Husband as remainderman, subject to a life estate for the benefit of wife,” they say because HUD and FHA laws at that time (mid-2017) required that all non-borrowing spouses be removed from title.” Is this correct?

Do HUD and FHA laws in mid-2017 require a non-borrowing spouse who otherwise held an equal interest in the real property to be removed from title? If so, what HUD and FHA laws? If so, is making essentially a joint tenant into a remainderman “taking the non-borrowing spouse off of title?” Is the form of title an HUD/FHA requirement, or in the discretion of the reverse mortgage company, or something else? Have these laws really changed so that it is no longer a requirement to take a non-borrowing spouse off title?

Part III — Are there any requirements that the consequences of such a change in title be explained to the couple?

Part IV — I understand that the title change may be merely for the instant of the loan closing and that husband could have been put right back on title (or the prior title restored) immediately after the close of the loan. Is there any obligation on the part of the reverse mortgage company to put title back the way it was after the loan closes? Or to advise husband and wife that they could (or should) put title back to the way it was?

I am new to reverse mortgages and trying to wrap my head around the requirements and process of reverse mortgages to determine if this reverse mortgage was done properly or not. Just looking for some direction as I have wasted hours and hours trying to find the answers myself, and you seem to give some good answers on this site.



Reverse Mortgage Attorney Asks: Laws of Survivorship Explained

You have a lot of ground to cover here so let’s jump right in.

Firstly, all borrowers of a reverse mortgage must be living in the home at the time the loan is closed and not be living elsewhere such as another location as would be the case with another property or a hospital or nursing home.

You are correct in that at the time the loan was originated, that would mean that if the borrowers wanted to close the loan prior to the husband returning to the home, he would have to come off of title making him a non-eligible, non-borrowing spouse (because he did not occupy the home at the time of the origination).

To answer another of your later questions, HUD did in fact change that rule when they issued their “Final Rule” later that year (September of 2017).

Non-borrowing spouses and others on title no longer have to come off title to close a reverse mortgage as long as they sign the proper paperwork now.



Non-Borrowing Spouse Laws

There was never a “law” regarding removing borrowers from title, HUD simply had rules regarding what they would allow for the program and then it was up to borrowers to agree to abide by the rules to accept the loan terms or they could refuse but then they would not be eligible for the loan.

Prior to September of 2017, the borrowers had a choice to wait until the husband was back in the home or remove him from title if they wished to proceed with the loan while still out of the home (or they could refuse to continue with the reverse mortgage completely).

The reverse mortgage documents specifically allow for the borrower to add others to title as long as at least one original borrower also remains on title as well, and continues to live in the home. In other words, the wife could have deeded the property back to herself and husband the day after the loan closed and would still be in compliance with the loan documents.

It would have been best to advise the borrower that the reverse mortgage documents allow for the change and advise the borrowers to seek the assistance of a competent attorney to make the title change to be sure to avoid any possible tax, estate or other adverse ramifications due to filing improper paperwork, but it would be highly unlikely that a mortgage originator would be involved in a title change after the loan closed.

Escrow and/or title typically make any changes to title during the course of a loan with the consent and guidance of the borrower, their families and attorneys, not the lender.

It’s a moot point now, but before HUD changed their rules, we always made it a point to inform borrowers of the benefits and the potential pitfalls of taking people off title and reminded them that if they did so and did intend to add them back or to add another family member, it is much easier to change the title while everyone was still with us rather than waiting until after someone passes and the owner is no longer here to sign paperwork.

I will get back to the title and the manner to which the vesting was changed a bit later as I think that is very odd.



Laws of Changing Title 

You inquired about any laws or requirements about changing the title. As I stated, HUD had the rules with the program as to who could get the loan and under what circumstances, they never required borrowers to change their title.

In this case, the lender would only be able to let the borrowers know in what way(s) they did not meet the HUD parameters (occupancy of the co-borrower), let the borrowers know that there were ways to resolve the issue (either wait for the husband to move home or remove him from title if they did not want to wait) and then let the borrowers make the decision as to whether or not they wished to proceed.

They cannot force the borrowers to change the title and I would certainly hope that they would explain all the positives and negatives with such an action as well as the fact that title can be changed to add the husband back to title immediately after closing but also that removing a spouse brought the risks of the loan being called due and payable if something happened to the borrowing spouse while the non-borrowing spouse was still alive and living in the home later.

I’m not aware of any laws though that address such a second title change at all, it’s merely a matter of borrower preference and most borrowers with whom I have dealt do desire to put the spouse back on title as quickly as possible to avoid any possibility of title issues later as can be the case with family, probate, etc., especially with second marriages.

Finally, I can’t see how the originator would be under any requirement, legal or otherwise to restore the title to something after the loan closed unless there was an agreement between the parties to such action.  I must admit though that I am extremely puzzled as to the manner in which the title and vesting was changed.

Every loan in which we have seen borrowers make changes for the same reasons, the title was switched to the occupying spouse, a married man or woman, as his/her sole and separate property making a second chance later a very simple procedure. If that had been done, it seems that would have made this a moot point as she would have the sole title now anyway with the passing of her spouse.

I think a question you may wish to ask at this time is who determined the manner of title because this is not a typical way most originators would handle this.

It seems to me that the borrowers had input from an attorney or family member to come up with a life estate idea and not just the originator because this was certainly no HUD requirement I know of no reverse mortgage companies that would give legal advice to borrowers requiring them to take title as such and if they did, you may want to determine if they were practicing law without a license.

I wish I could definitively answer all your questions but I just wasn’t there at the time the loan was originated.



Top Attorney FAQs

Q.

Do you need a lawyer for a reverse mortgage?

There is no need to engage a reverse mortgage by HUD or lender standards but only you can determine whether you feel you need legal or accounting advice on the loan.
Q.

How long can you leave home with a reverse mortgage?

The loan terms allow you to be out of the house each year for a portion of the year as long as you live in the home for more than 6 months of the year and if you are gone for more than 60 days, you notify the lender and secure the home while it is vacant. If you need to leave the home due to medical issues, you may do so for up to 12 months before you must return to the home of the loan will become due and payable as an absence longer than 12 months is considered a permanent move.
Q.

Do both spouses have to be 62 to get a reverse mortgage?

In most states, only one spouse needs to be 62 or over and the younger spouse can be under the age of 62. The younger spouse is considered an “eligible non-borrowing spouse” who can remain in the home if the older spouse dies but cannot access funds from the loan once the older spouse passes since they are not on the loan. The state of Texas does not currently allow for a non-borrowing spouse and both spouses must be 62 or over.
Q.

What happens if a spouse dies with a reverse mortgage?

The loans remains in place as long as at least one borrower on the original loan or an eligible spouse remains living in the home.
Q.

Who holds title in a reverse mortgage?

The reverse mortgage is a loan like any other loan. The borrowers still hold title and have a lien (loan) on the property just as they would with a standard or forward mortgage. There is no prepayment penalty and so the loan may be prepaid at any time without penalty and that includes by sale, refinance or with other funds available to the borrower.

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28 Comments on this Article
  1.   Gigi A.
    August 18th, 2022
    Hi my brother and I own a house together we are both on the deed I am 67 and he is 58 he would like to do a reverse mortgage in about five years and I'm wondering if we can do it together and live in the house until we both pass away?
    Reply to Gigi
    • Michael Branson Michael Branson
      August 20th, 2022
      Hello Gigi,
      If you are both on title, live in the property and 62 or over, you do not need to be married to each other to get a reverse mortgage. If you meet HUD's requirements, single individuals (including siblings) can also get a reverse mortgage together.
      Reply to Michael
  2.   James R.
    January 11th, 2022
    Hello ARLO, my name is James. I'm not sure if I'm going to ask this question the right way but I'll just give you the whole story. My uncle's girlfriend had a mortgage on her home my uncle had been living with her for more than 10 years. She unfortunately passed away and my uncle continued to live in the home. I moved into the home to help my uncle and for the last 6 years I have been living in my uncle's deceased girlfriend's home. My uncle is now deceased, and the bank has not contacted us personally, but they have been trying to contact my uncle's deceased girlfriend. I know that they are doing a foreclosure and I guess my question is, is there any way that I can stop the foreclosure and purchase the home through the bank by means of refinancing the loan?
    Reply to James
    • Michael Branson Michael Branson
      January 11th, 2022
      Hello James,
      The loan is currently due and payable. The bank cannot determine who owns the property after the death of the borrower, there would probably need to be a probate action through the court for that.
      I would suggest that you contact an attorney if you feel you have legal right to the ownership of the property (heirship) to see what it would take to petition the courts as I honestly do not know what it would take (and I think a lot would depend on whether she had any relatives or heirs). Otherwise, the bank will continue with the foreclosure action if an heir does not come forward to repay the obligation by paying off the loan or sell the house and pay the loan off that way.
      If the lender does go to a Trustee's Foreclosure Sale, you would have the same opportunity at that time to bid on the property at the foreclosure auction and the lender's bid would start the sale at the amount owed to the lender and they would not bid again after that initial bid.
      There may be others who also want to purchase the home though depending on the price and you would need to know that auction terms as many are cash auctions or you need to have your financing in place before the auction and finalize your purchase within a very short time after the completion of the auction if you are the high bidder but I honestly do not know how each operates and I have heard that many have different rules so you should check them carefully in advance.
      Reply to Michael
    •   Dianne M.
      January 14th, 2022
      My name is Dianne Mayer I am a non borrower spouse we signed documents I believe in 2006 with American freedom Reverse Mortgage my late husband Otto Mayer Jr but I wasn't 62 but my husband was over 62 then Celink Reverse Mortgage was now the new Reverse Mortgage Company husband passed away in July 6, 2019 and I have been begging for my non borrower spouse right no luck all paperwork was in on time per 2020 but still no Celink denial letter I kept being told my paperwork wasn't in February 2020 I called every month because my paperwork was in on time then 2020 staff worked from homes then in February 2021 now I was told HUD denied me I called HUD and know that they don't know anything about my case but Celink refused to give me a letter denial for almost 2 years then on August 2021 I was transferred to RMS reverse mortgage solution now transit into PHH mortgage when I was trying to get A mortgage extension of the $175000 that expire November 10, 2021 on my house Because The mortgage company had to work with me because I was on social security with my son 14 years old But they refuse to give me an extension on the heir payoff of a $175000 was appraise By RMS that my house was a that expired on November 10th 2021 I kept begging for an extension RMS reverse mortgage solution which transition into PHH mortgage on October 2021 was told me that HUD denial me HUD had no knowledge of my extension request I need help to stay in my home as a non borrower spouse.
      Reply to Dianne
      • Michael Branson Michael Branson
        January 20th, 2022
        Hello Diane,
        If your Husband received the original loan in 2006, there was no designation of "eligible non-borrowing spouse" at that time. When he passed in 2019, it could have been before HUD changed the eligible non-borrowing spouse rules to include all previously non-eligible spouses who were married to their eligible spouses, lived in the homes at the time the loan closed and had done so continuously since.
        If that was the case, I do not know what your recourse may be at this point. If you do have correspondence from the first servicer that you do qualify for the non-borrowing spouse deferral, I would strongly recommend that you contact an attorney and check to see what your rights are under the law at this point with the correspondence you have.
        Another thing you may want to consider is that the original loan was closed when HUD had much lower regional limits. Have you checked to see if you qualify for a refinance of a new reverse mortgage in your own name at this time? With increased loan limits and property values, you may find that you can get a loan in your own name now and retire the first loan that was just in your husband's name that would ensure your ability to remain in the home for as long as you live in it and pay the property charges in a timely manner.
        Reply to Michael
  3.   Christina
    August 2nd, 2021
    My father passed away in 2009. There was supposedly a will, but that has not been found. He owned a home with my stepmother and she still lives there. I recently found out my stepmother took out a reverse mortgage in 2016. I've contacted the company, but they say unless my stepmother consents to release information, they will not tell me anything about the reverse mortgage. They did confirm they have the reverse mortgage for that property under her name. Under what circumstances was she able to secure a reverse mortgage without my consent? As my father's only child, I still have equity in the house when my stepmother passes. I realize I will have to share that equity with her children because my father did not properly file a will, yet a reverse mortgage seems to strip me of that equity.
    Reply to Christina
    • Michael Branson Michael Branson
      August 2nd, 2021
      Hello Christina,
      You are asking me a legal question that I cannot answer for you. Your question refers to the legal issue of heirship rights and is not about reverse mortgages and if you would like an answer to your situation, you really need to speak with an attorney in the state in which the property is located.
      Different states have different laws concerning heirship rights, but it may also boil down to how they took title. If your stepmother received the property through inheritance (which she obviously did not), that might make a difference than, say, if she purchased the home with your father or if he later added her to title while living together and also the manner of how the title was held.
      If they held the title as tenants in common, then each has their own percentage of ownership and from what I have been taught and what I read, that ownership would pass to each of their designated heirs as to their percentage ownership (but again, I am not an attorney, and this is not official advice - just my understanding of title).
      If they held title as joint tenants, the joint tenant has right of survivorship whereas tenants in common have no right of survivorship. Therefore the interest of a person who dies in such a case stays with their estate (https://www.findlaw.com/realestate/buying-a-home/difference-between-joint-tenancy-and-tenancy-in-common.html).
      If your stepmother and father owned the property as joint tenants, she now owns 100% of the property as the surviving owner and would have no problem getting any loan for which she was qualified. Simply put, if she was the sole owner of the property and the state in which the property was located had no heirship provisions prohibiting it, she can use the property to obtain any loan she wishes.
      You can check out the way she held title (joint tenancy or tenants in common) really easily just by checking the filed deeds with the county recorder. But if you still have any questions about state requirements or feel that she did not have full title to the property, you need to speak with a licensed attorney.
      Reply to Michael
  4.   Lisa
    July 24th, 2020
    I rent a room from a man with a reverse home mortgage through HUD. Am I, as a renter covered by the federal eviction moratorium?
    Reply to Lisa
    • Michael Branson Michael Branson
      July 24th, 2020
      Hello Lisa,
      I am afraid cannot answer this question for you.
      The question pertains to your legal rights as a tenant and not the reverse mortgage itself so I must refer you to an attorney to seek out the correct answer.
      We cannot give legal or accounting advice by licensing laws and therefore, I would suggest that you check with an attorney or perhaps a legal aid office for guidance.
      Reply to Michael
  5.   Keshia K.
    June 12th, 2020
    My grandma took out a loan for my uncle using her house as collateral and my uncle as co-signer. She passed and willed me the house. My uncle stopped making payments on the loan and I started. He now says he is selling the house and I must go. Can this happen although the will says its mine?
    Reply to Keshia
    • Michael Branson Michael Branson
      June 12th, 2020
      Hello Keshia,
      This is a question for an attorney as it relates to property and heirship rights, not a reverse mortgage.
      I would suggest you should speak to an attorney as soon as you can because if your grandmother used your uncle as a co-borrower on that loan, then he would probably have been added to title at that time.
      I strongly suggest you contact an attorney as soon as possible to determine your rights and what you must do to protect them.
      Reply to Michael
  6.   Toni D.
    April 13th, 2020
    My father passed away on 2-5-20, he has a reverse mortgage on his house. I moved in to be his caregiver a few years ago, my name is NOT on the reverse mortgage nor on the utilities. I am still living in the house as this pandemic makes it difficult to get things going. My question is if I am responsible for property taxes, home insurance, dues & sewer? I have been paying other utilities (gas, electric, water).
    Reply to Toni
    • Michael Branson Michael Branson
      April 13th, 2020
      Hello Toni,
      I can't really answer this. You are not the legal owner of the property but you are the one using the services so that would really be a legal question for an attorney as to what liability you may or may not have as the individual who incurred the charges even if you didn't sign up for the services.
      About taxes, insurance, HOA dues and things like trash and sewer service, you may want to decide what you intend to do with the property if you are your father's heir. If there is equity in the property and you intend to sell or keep the home, if these charges go unpaid and the lender must pay them on your father's behalf, if you do decide to sell the home or keep it, there will just be more fees that you will be required to pay when you pay the loan off.
      And if the lender must order insurance to insure the home because you let the insurance lapse, the insurance a lender orders, known as "forced-placed coverage", is very expensive and only covers the dwelling itself, nothing inside.
      I would encourage you to make some decisions about what you ultimately intend to do with the property if this is your call as your father's heir before you make your decisions about other matters. It may save you money in the long run.
      Reply to Michael
  7.   Mary W.
    November 20th, 2019
    Real estate affidavit heirship. Land was foreclosed on oversight of affidavit was missing now I've been summons to court explain why.
    Reply to Mary
    • Michael Branson Michael Branson
      November 20th, 2019
      Hello Mary,
      I am sorry, you are talking about a legal proceeding on which I cannot help you. I cannot speculate on what may or may not have happened with someone else's documentation and I am not licensed to give you legal interpretations on the effect of different state laws.
      I am afraid I cannot speculate why the court would want to see you or what their concerns may be. I do not know if someone is challenging some aspect of the heirship, if it is a documentary process or what.
      I would suggest that you contact an attorney who handles this type of law as it may be something that happens routinely or that attorney may be able to make an inquiry on your behalf with the court that might save you a trip. At any rate, I am sorry, but I cannot be of any assistance in this matter.
      Reply to Michael
  8.   Miranda
    November 20th, 2019
    My girlfriends 90 year old Uncle had a reverse mortgage- he just passed away in September and we have lived in the back house On the property for years- the heirs have an attorney and left us a note stating we need to either provide a lease or move out by the end of the month- and they are her family ! Either way, I provided the lease and am waiting to hear back- So, I know the loan becomes due once her uncle died and the heirs are trying to sell, pay off the loan and liquidate the property/ assets, but I wanted to know if we still have rights to live here with a lease through June of this year in WA state? Why else would they ask for the lease if it didn't mean anything right? I'm just trying to prepare and see what our tenants' rights are now.
    Reply to Miranda
    • Michael Branson Michael Branson
      November 20th, 2019
      Hello Miranda,
      Your question pertains to tenants' rights under the law and not with a reverse mortgage and therefore, I must advise you to seek the counsel of an attorney practicing within the state. I am not licensed to give legal advice and therefore, you really need to seek the help from an individual who is.
      Reply to Michael
  9.   Catherine W.
    August 25th, 2019
    I was a cosigner for my brother, the home was passed over to us prior to my mother's death. It was fine legally with the attorney filing documents at our City Hall building.
    The home was purchased by our parents therefore we are both heirs to the property. She is about to sell the home. My question is am I entitled to half of the proceeds once the home us sold, and will I be notified by your office once the transaction is revealed. I understand she still live s in the home, but she took out the transaction which required my signature.
    As for the lien she took out that should come out of her portion at the time of the settlement.
    Reply to Catherine
    • Michael Branson Michael Branson
      August 25th, 2019
      Hello Catherine,
      I'm having a little difficulty following your comments because you refer to a brother but you say repeatedly that "she" is selling the home and "she" is still living there so I am not sure who you are referring to unless you meant "he", but I hate to assume.
      And I am not sure why you are requesting/expecting notification from a lender after the sale of a home. If you were also on the title and the loan, there will be documentation that you too would have to sign to enable the sale.
      If you signed Deeds, etc. to remove yourself from title to enable the loan, etc., then the title/closing agent would not be required to obtain your consent to finalize the sale now.
      About the division of the proceeds, that would be something to be decided by the property owners, not the lender. The lender has no decision in how sale proceeds are divided and hopefully you and your brother have an agreement in place so this is already determined.
      Reply to Michael
  10.   Ileana G.
    August 3rd, 2019
    I am thinking of doing a reverse mortgage, but we are not legally married. They are telling the best way is putting me on the title but not on the mortgage. My credit score is bad. My question is if I died and leave a will my heirs can sale the house pays the loan and get 1/2 of the equity or needs to wait both persons died to gets the heirs?
    Reply to Ileana
    • Michael Branson Michael Branson
      August 3rd, 2019
      Hello Ileana,
      You should consult an attorney for this issue. I can answer questions about the loan but I cannot tell you what legal rights your heirs may or may not have with regard to the title and what you would need to do to be sure there was still a valid way to be sure that they could receive their inheritance.
      The only reason I could see for not putting you on the mortgage is if you are not yet 62. Is that the case? If it is, you would have your interest in the property if you are on title, but you would not be protected if the borrower passed before you. In other words, the loan would become due and payable at that time and you would have to pay the entire balance off at that time through either a refinance of the loan or by selling the property.
      If you passed before the individual on title, the loan would not be due and payable and the interest would continue to accrue which might be an issue for your heirs, depending on how the two of you plan to work this whole thing out. That is what the loan will allow.
      Whether you can have a binding agreement that would require the other individual on title to sell the home at that time or pay off your heirs, I cannot answer. The loan would allow that person to continue to stay in the home which means the interest accrues and the balance on the loan rises (and would impact the amount available to heirs -how much would depend on appreciation of the home).
      Your legal counsel would have to be the one to let you know what can be done to protect all heirs in this event so that your heirs would also have half of the equity available at the time of your passing if that was your desired goal, the loan does not make this provision.
      Reply to Michael
  11.   Cherron R.
    July 10th, 2019
    I'm living in a house with my child's father & my child's father took over his brothers loan after he passed away & I found out that just his income alone wouldn't qualify him so we also added my name as a backup in case he didn't pay they would go after my income. Well we found out he is dying now so he wants to take his name off & add one of our other roommates. Can they remove my name without my consent or behind my back?
    Reply to Cherron
    • Michael Branson Michael Branson
      July 10th, 2019
      Hello Cherron,
      You really should have an attorney review your situation. I can't tell from what you are saying if the lender allowed you to co-sign a loan without being on title or if you were granted title and were added as a co-owner and coborrower of the loan.
      Typically, if you co-signed a loan but were never on title (which is a rare occurrence), the owner could refinance that loan at any time and not include you in the next loan.
      However, if you were added to title in order for them to qualify for the loan, you would have to agree to sign a Deed (Grant or Quit Claim) to remove your interest in the property before they could close another loan without your involvement.
      Again though, I cannot tell what was done in the past from the little information here and you really do need to speak with an attorney licensed in your state to determine your situation, any potential liability and your rights at this point.
      Reply to Michael
  12.   Ember
    April 3rd, 2019
    Can a personal representative remove a partial heir in the home that has lived with deceased mother for 56 years?
    Reply to Ember
    • Michael Branson Michael Branson
      April 3rd, 2019
      Good Morning,
      I am afraid this is a question for an estate attorney. It does not pertain to the loan but rather the rights of heirs and as such, it of a legal nature, not regarding the loan. Our licensing does not allow us to give legal advice nor would we even try since different states have different laws so I would have to refer you to legal counsel for this subject.
      Reply to Michael
  13.   Ann
    December 13th, 2018
    I'm living with my grandmother in her house and have been for the last 30 years and taking care of her for the past 10 years. 6 months ago, she passed away and I discovered that she has a reverse mortgage that she hid from me. (She always spoke of leaving the house to me.) when she died, she named my aunt (who is mentally ill and addicted to drugs in another state) head of estate. All this is mind boggling because I just found out all of this when I received a letter from the loan company saying we have 6 months from the day she passed to repay the loan or apply for an extension in the case that we intend on doing a short sale and then paying back the loan.
    I have two questions though, #1 can I do anything if I'm not head of estate as far as getting an extension? My sons and I have lived here so long and not only do I not have anywhere to go but I have tons of belongings here and I don't want to get kicked out and lose all my belongings. #2) is a contract between my grandma and I, stating that in exchange for caring for her and the home, that I am permitted to reside in the home till 2021 or until I willingly relocate, honored by the loan company?
    It's notarized and signed by her, me and the notary. If not, then how long do I have to find a new home before I HAVE to be vacated. Legally. Do eviction laws apply here?
    Reply to Ann
    • Michael Branson Michael Branson
      December 13th, 2018
      Hello Ann,
      I'm sorry, I cannot advise you on these matters. This is a legal issue at this point and we are not licensed to give legal advice. The lender cannot determine anything about a contract between you and your grandmother or the occupancy of a property they do not own. They do not own the home, your grandmother, or rather her estate, does until such time as the title passes in accordance with her wishes and applicable law. The lender has no say in the way the owner chooses to bequeath her property to heirs or the probate process.
      The lender has a lien on the property that is now due and payable. Under the terms of that loan, if the loan is not paid in full, the lender will ultimately begin a foreclosure process to protect its interest. I have no way of knowing what validity any contract you possess would have over your aunt's ownership rights or the lender's right to foreclose at that point. For answers to those questions, you really need to seek the assistance of a licensed attorney in the area where the property is located so that he can review the contract and let you know the other local/state laws pertaining to your situation.
      Reply to Michael

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