Hello Tammy, I cannot comment on what was explained to a borrower or not because I was not there, and I do not know what the lender said or his motives or goals. He could not have gotten the loan without you unless you were not on title to the property and he claimed unmarried status. This means that not only the lender was of the impression that he was a single individual but the title company as well. It sounds like he went to some effort to hide the loan from you if you truly had no idea of the loan because it was not just one day of paperwork that was involved, there would have been more than a month of loan processing including an appraiser who came to the home and did a complete home inspection with the appraisal and your significant other would also have needed to meet and sign all the loan documents at the end with the notary at which time he would also have affirmed his status. What I can tell you is that if the loan was only originated 2 (+/-) years ago, there has not been too much time to accrue interest and if he only received $8,000 in cash, the remainder of the funds probably went toward paying off an existing loan. If he had not gotten the reverse mortgage, there would have been another mortgage to pay during this time. At any rate, there should be equity left in the property since it has been less than 3 years and if you are his heir, you should move to protect your claim on the home (the will does not automatically change the title to you). It does not sound like you will be able to remain in the property as you state you have no income to refinance the loan into a new loan at this time and the reverse mortgage is due and payable. But in all honestly, based on what you have said, it sounds like without the reverse mortgage you would have been in the same situation when he was stricken with Parkinson's and there was a mortgage to pay then. You may have even been facing a foreclosure at that time if he never got the loan. I honestly don't know why he didn't add you to title and the reverse mortgage though and make sure you were covered under the reverse mortgage in 2018 if you were living in the home at that time. It seems like a logical step to me and I certainly would have informed the borrower of the need or the availability if I knew about the existence of a second person living in the home (significant other or even an eligible family member) but for whatever reason, he didn't. My advice to you is to protect yourself now before anything else. Take care of the property title so that you can sell it to protect your equity and then if you feel you should, contact an attorney to see if you have any case against the lender on the origination of the reverse mortgage loan. I am not an attorney and cannot give you legal advice. I do not know if you have any recourse based on the fact that you may or may not have had a claim to title at the time the loan was completed and you need an attorney to answer those questions. If it was me advising a family member though, I would urge them to protect their equity immediately though and the first step is perfecting your title so that you can finance or sell the home and it sounds like financing is not possible for you at this time. You should probably contact an estate attorney to determine if the will needs to go through probate or what steps need to be taken to complete the process of transferring the title to you pursuant to the wishes in the will. You don't need to wait and do things in "steps, you can contact a senior real estate specialist now as well to determine what you need to do to sell the home right away and start that process. Then it is your call whether you wish to seek legal counsel about the legality of the existing loan terms. I just urge you not to wait until after the home has gone through foreclosure to find out it was too late, and you should have protected your equity first.